The provisions of the two laws on this issue are consistent. If the exam is not yet effective, and there are ready-made regulations, and it has not been abolished. Why should we cite legal provisions that have not yet entered into force? If this is a true case, what will be the effect of citing laws that have not yet entered into force in court? There are many flawed laws, but I think that's a matter for legislators. As a candidate, can you give a different answer from the current law because you think that a certain law is defective in legislation? Alas! Stop arguing, it doesn't make much sense. Very tired.