We're having a meeting in half an hour.The decision_____at the meeting will influence the future of our company. A: to be made B: being made C: made D: having been made The answer is A Why does the answer say that D should be eliminated first because having been done cannot be used as a postpositional attributive. Please explain.
Answer: We have a meeting in half an hour. A decision will be made at the meeting that will affect the future of our company.
Analysis: to be made means "to be made" (decision). It is true that no one uses the perfect passive form of the present participle having been done as a postpositional attributive, because it is the patent of done! It means "complete, passive", and this decision is about to be made, so someone can first rule out that D
being made means "now or was being made at the time"
These four options all indicate passivity. Note the difference in status.
being done is an ongoing passive action.
To be done is a passive action that will take place.
done: Passive action that has been completed
Having been done is mainly used as an adverbial of time to express: Passive action that has been completed
Understand why having been is not used Is done used as a postpositional attributive? For the sake of simplicity and uniqueness, don’t compete with done.
It was very inconvenient to answer on my mobile phone just now. This question seems to have been answered elsewhere. I have an archive, and most of it was copied and modified. After finishing some things in the morning, I checked the post again, but it was already closed.
Among the accepted answers, only the first and last answers are correct. The middle two points are not clearly expressed in language.
My comment: This is a great topic. Unfortunately it has been closed. I originally wanted to discuss this item B. Who is Teacher Li? The questioner or the respondent? The answerer is most likely an international student or university professor who knows a lot but cannot explain basic things clearly. Non-predicate verbs have no tense, so we cannot say that having been done and being done are both in the present perfect continuous tense. What is "the continuous tense is compounded with the passive tense and is a noun clause (missing the subject)". The subject is gone and it is still a sentence?
Although it has been closed and it is impossible to accept mine, it is a good topic and worth discussing. It also proves that I am not here for the 120 reward points.
Discuss the adopter’s Article 3:
The reason for 3.B option is that the latter participle structure of being done uses the past participle of the verb, which can be regarded as a copula Indicative nouns, such as changing decision being made to decision's being made will be complete (no 's is added after the noun in modern American English), that is, ''decision making'', [''decision''] modifies '[' making '']. Being is the '' of '' in the noun form, and made is the postpositional attributive of the participle being. However, the most difficult thing is to understand the question, that is, decision is the defining attribute of being made, not the subject. being made is the subject. The semantics become decisions that are happening, which are more timely and artistic.
This teacher gave us another idea:
The decision being made at the meeting will influence the future of our company.
=The decision's being made at the meeting will influence the future of our company.
Don’t look at his difficult to understand expressions, that’s what it means.
He believes that the subject of this sentence is not the decision (followed by a restrictive attributive), but a gerund (this is an old grammatical term, and today it may be called the ing form of the verb) being made.
We know that the logical subject of a gerund is usually the possessive form of a noun or pronoun, such as: Tom's being late, His being late, which is also called the compound structure of the gerund. Its function is still equivalent to a noun, which can be used as an object or subject in a sentence.
As we all know, when this compound structure is used as an object, in spoken or informal language, the logical subject can replace the possessive case with the common case of a noun or the accusative case of a personal pronoun, such as:
Do you mind Tom's /his opening the door? Tom opened the door, do you mind?
It can be said as:
Do you mind Tom/him opening the door?
However, the gerund compound structure used as the subject cannot be replaced like this .
This should be everyone’s common knowledge.
However, he has one redeeming feature. Zhang Daozhen said in "Practical English Grammar" 79th Edition P252 that when it comes to the logical subject of a gerund, use the possessive case, and the ordinary case (or personal pronoun) can be used at the beginning of a non-sentence. Accusative case), there is a note at the end:
If the logical subject of the gerund is an inanimate thing, you can only use the ordinary case, not the possessive case:
Is there any hope of Hsiao Liu's group winning the red banner?
Is there any hope of Hsiao Liu's group winning the red banner? (The example sentence is very old and has the mark of that era!)
Note the comparison with his example sentence above:
Is there any hope of Hsiao Yang winning the championship?
Is there any hope of Hsiao Yang winning the championship?
Is there any hope of Hsiao Yang winning the championship? (When it is not at the beginning of a sentence, that is, when it is not used as the subject, ordinary case is used instead of possessive case)
But I think that the decision cannot be used to replace the decision's in the sentence in question, and it does not fall into the above mentioned situation< /p>
There are two reasons:
1. If the decision being made + predicate, completely = the decision's being made + predicate, then the previous one becomes an ambiguous structure. Because most people think of the decision + participle phrase as a postpositional attributive. If it is indeed a gerund as the subject, regardless of whether the logical subject is a person or not, the possessive case of the noun should be used to avoid ambiguity.
2. Even this understanding is valid.
That is, B=The decision's being made as the subject "(no 's is added after the noun in modern American English)"
Put it back and let's see if the logic of the language is correct?
We're having a meeting in half an hour. The decision 's being made at the meeting will influence the future of our company.
Translation: We are going to Have a meeting. At this meeting, a decision will be made that will affect the future of our company.
The decision here, as the first thing mentioned, lacks foreshadowing. Which decision is "this decision"? Haven't we heard of it?
What affects the future of my company, is it the decision or the making of the decision?
So, I think choice B for this question is wrong. It’s inexplicable!